A 58-year-old man with a history of angina is undergoing resection of an abdominal aortic aneurysm under morphine, nitrous oxide, d-tubocurarine anesthesia. Just before removal of the aortic cross-clamp, heart rate is 74 bpm, blood pressure is 115/70 mmHg, and pulmonary artery occlusion pressure is 7 mmHg. Immediately after removal of the cross-clamp, heart rate increases to 120 bpm, blood pressure decreases to 80/55 mmHg, and pulmonary artery occlusion pressure decreases to 3 mmHg. The V5 lead on the EKG demonstrates sudden ST-segment depression and T-wave inversion. Initial therapy should be
(A) reapplication of the aortic cross-clamp
(B) intravenous administration of sodium bicarbonate
(C) initiation of a phenylephrine infusion
(D) rapid expansion of blood volume by transfusion
A 75-year-old man with aortic stenosis and coronary artery disease has a preinduction heart rate of 68 bpm and blood pressure of 125/70 mmHg. After induction of anesthesia with fentanyl, midazolam, and pancuronium, heart rate is 90 bpm and blood pressure is 85/45 mmHg. ECG shows a new ST-segment elevation in lead II. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?
A 45-year-old man is scheduled for exploratory laparotomy. Six months ago, he received doxorubicin (Adriamycin) therapy for testicular cancer. This patient is at increased risk for
In a patient with 20% pulmonary shunt and a PaO2 of 60 mmHg, cardiac output suddenly decreases from 5 L/min to 3 L/min. Oxygen consumption is unchanged. As a result, the PaO2 will
(A) increase slightly because of decreased shunt blood flow
(B) decrease slightly because of decreased mixed venous PO2
(C) increase because of decreased affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen
(D) decrease because of an increased dead space to tidal volume ratio
(E) increase because of increased pulmonary oxygen uptake per milliliter of blood
A 55-year-old man undergoes abdominal perineal resection in the lithotomy position during combined epidural (bupivacaine 0.5%) and isoflurane anesthesia. The epidural catheter is left in place with an infusion of fentanyl 50 jug/hr. Twelve hours after surgery, the patient has left footdrop. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?
(A) Epidural hematoma
(B) Epidural opioid
(C) Inadequate padding of the knee during surgery
(D) Nerve injury from the epidural catheter
(E) Residual effects of the local anesthetic
C
Which of the following findings differentiates the pickwickian syndrome from morbid obesity?